Cisco 350-401 Dumps MasterPiece PDF | Exam Questions | Valid Study Material

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

What does this EEM applet event accomplish?
"event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.1.5.1.2.4.2.9 get-type next entry-op g entry-val 75 poll-interval 5"

A. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles.
B. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75%, it triggers an action GO.
C. It presents an SNMP variable that can be interrogated.
D. Upon the value reaching 75%, an SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server.

Answer: B



Question: 2

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Answer: B



Question: 3

Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?

A. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric
B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers
C. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric
D. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers

Answer: B

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Updated CompTIA CAS-003 Dumps | Tips to Pass CAS-003 Exam

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

An organization is implementing a virtualized thin-client solution for normal user computing and access. During a review of the architecture, concerns were raised that an attacker could gain access to multiple user environments by simply gaining a foothold on a single one with the malware. Which of the following reasons BEST explains this?

A. Malware on one virtual environment could enable pivoting to others by leveraging vulnerabilities in the hypervisor.
B. A worm on one virtual environment could spread to others by taking advantage of guest OS networking services vulnerabilities.
C. One virtual environment may have one or more application-layer vulnerabilities, which could allow an attacker to escape that environment.
D. Malware on one virtual user environment could be copied to all others by the attached network storage controller.

Answer: A



Question: 2

An online bank has contracted with a consultant to perform a security assessment of the bank’s web portal. The consultant notices the login page is linked from the main page with HTTPS, but when the URL is changed to HTTP, the browser is automatically redirected back to the HTTPS site. Which of the following is a concern for the consultant, and how can it be mitigated?

A. XSS could be used to inject code into the login page during the redirect to the HTTPS site. The consultant should implement a WAF to prevent this.
B. The consultant is concerned the site is using an older version of the SSL 3.0 protocol that is vulnerable to a variety of attacks. Upgrading the site to TLS 1.0 would mitigate this issue.
C. The HTTP traffic is vulnerable to network sniffing, which could disclose usernames and passwords to an attacker. The consultant should recommend disabling HTTP on the webserver.
D. A successful MITM attack Could intercept the redirect and use sslstrip to decrypt further HTTPS traffic. Implementing HSTS on the webserver would prevent this.

Answer: D



Question: 3

A security administrator wants to implement controls to harden company-owned mobile devices.
Company policy specifies the following requirements:
• Mandatory access control must be enforced by the OS.
• Devices must only use the mobile carrier data transport.
Which of the following controls should the security administrator implement? (Select three).

A. Enable DLP
B. Enable SEAndroid
C. Enable EDR
D. Enable secure boot
E. Enable remote wipe
F. Disable Bluetooth
G. Disable 802.11
H. Disable geotagging

Answer: B,F,G

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2020 CompTIA 220-1001 Dumps |CompTIA 220-1001 Study Material | Dumpspass4sure.com

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

A technician is troubleshooting what appears to be a RAM issue on a PC. Which of the following
symptoms would indicate if this is a RAM issue?

A. POST code beeps
B. Distended capacitors
C. Continuous reboots
D. Wrong BIOS time

Answer: C



Question: 2

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

A. Remove the case and organize the parts.
B. Document the screw locations.
C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.
D. Consult colleagues for advice.
E. Place the device in rice for a few days.

Answer: A, B



Question: 3

Which of the following peripherals would a company use to take inventory quickly and update price tags for products? (Choose two.)

A. Barcode scanner
B. Label printer
C. Magnetic reader
D. KVM switch
E. NFC device
F. Flatted scanner

Answer: A, C

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Latest Amazon SCS-C01 Questions Answers 2020 | Valid SCS-C01 Dumps

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

The Security team believes that a former employee may have gained unauthorized access to AWS resources sometime in the past 3 months by using an identified access key.
What approach would enable the Security team to find out what the former employee may have done within AWS?

A. Use the AWS CloudTrail console to search for the user activity.
B. Use the Amazon CloudWatch Logs console to filter CloudTrail data by a user.
C. Use AWS Config to see what actions were taken by the user.
D. Use Amazon Athena to query CloudTrail logs stored in Amazon S3.

Answer: A



Question: 2

The Security Engineer implemented a new vault lock policy for 10TB of data and called initiate-vault lock 12 hours ago. The Audit team identified a typo that is allowing incorrect access to the vault.
What is the MOST cost-effective way to correct this?

A. Call the abort-vault-lock operation, fix the typo, and call the initiate-vault-lock again.
B. Copy the vault data to Amazon S3, delete the vault, and create a new vault with the data.
C. Update the policy, keeping the vault lock in place.
D. Update the policy and call initiate-vault-lock again to apply the new policy.

Answer: A



Question: 3

A company wants to control access to its AWS resources by using identities and groups that are defined in its existing Microsoft Active Directory.
What must the company create in its AWS account to map permissions for AWS services to Active Directory user attributes?

A. AWS IAM groups
B. AWS IAM users
C. AWS IAM roles
D. AWS IAM access keys

Answer: C



Question: 4

A company has contracted with a third party to audit several AWS accounts. To enable the audit, cross-account IAM roles have been created in each account targeted for an audit. The Auditor is having trouble accessing some of the accounts.
Which of the following may be causing this problem? (Choose three.)

A. The external ID used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.
B. The Auditor is using the incorrect password.
C. The Auditor has not been granted sts: AssumeRole for the role in the destination account.
D. The Amazon EC2 role used by the Auditor must be set to the destination account role.
E. The secret key used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.
F. The role ARN used by the Auditor is missing or incorrect.

Answer: A,C,F



Question: 5

Compliance requirements state that all communications between company on-premises hosts and EC2 instances be encrypted in transit. Hosts use custom proprietary protocols for their communication, and EC2 instances need to be fronted by a load balancer for increased availability.
Which of the following solutions will meet these requirements?

A. Offload SSL termination onto an SSL listener on a Classic Load Balancer, and use a TCP connection between the load balancer and the EC2 instances.
B. Route all traffic through a TCP listener on a Classic Load Balancer, and terminate the TLS connection on the EC2 instances.
C. Create an HTTPS listener using an Application Load Balancer, and route all of the communication through that load balancer.
D. Offload SSL termination onto an SSL listener using an Application Load Balancer, and re-spawn and SSL connection between the load balancer and the EC2 instances.

Answer: B

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Latest Citrix 1Y0-402 Dumps |Verified Study Material 2020 | Dumpspass4sure.com

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
While designing the Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute.
What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?

A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing

Answer: E



Question: 2

A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)

A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications
D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes

Answer: A,C,D,F



Question: 3

Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements.
• Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications.
• Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database.
• Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?

A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI

Answer: B

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Veeam VMCE_V9 Dumps | PDF Key To Success | {2020}

Sample Questions:-

QUESTION 1

A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job. A Windows-based server is used as a repository.
Which placement of the Veeam Data Mover Service(s) would result in the most optimal configuration?

A. One - at the remote target site
B. One - at the production site
C. At least two - one at the production site and one at the remote site
D. Veeam Data Mover services are not required to transfer data offsite

Answer: C



QUESTION 2

Which backup method is described below? "After a full VM backup is created, subsequent backups are incremental. Only data blocks that have changed since the last job run are backed up. All the changes are injected into the created .vbk file to rebuild it to the most recent state of a VM." (Select two.)

A. Forever forward incremental backup
B. Reverse incremental backup
C. Forward incremental backup with synthetic fulls with a transform to rollbacks
D. Forward incremental backup

Answer: B, C



QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?

A. Deploys a Veeam persistent agent on every Windows VM to be processed
B. Mounts the VM file system for browsing purposes when performing a restore to the remote site
C. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every Windows VM to be processed
D. Processes VM data, taking the load off the Veeam backup server

Answer: C

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Updated Microsoft MS-201 Dumps | Tips to Pass MS-201 Exam

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

You need to recommend a solution for the public folders that support the planned changes and meets the technical requirements.
What should you recommend?

A. Microsoft SharePoint site mailboxes
B. Office 365 groups
C. Resource mailboxes
D. Public folder replicas

Answer: B



Question: 2

You need to resolve the email delivery delay issue.
What should you do?

A. From the Security & Compliance admin center, modify the safe attachments policy
B. From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a supervision policy.
C. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the antimalware policy.
D. From the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online, modify the spam filter policy.

Answer: A



Question: 3

You need to recommend an Office 365 solution that meets the technical requirements for an email from adatum.com.
Which two components should you recommend configuring from the Exchange admin center in Exchange Online? Each correct presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. DKIM signatures
B. a spam filter
C. a malware filter
D. data loss prevention (DLP) policies
E. a connection filter

Answer: B, E

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Microsoft MS-100 Dumps MasterPiece PDF | Exam Questions | Valid Study Material

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

You need to add the custom domain name* to Office 36S K> to support the planned changes as quickly as possible.
What should you create to verify the domain names successfully?

A. three alias (CNAME) record
B. one text (TXT) record
C. one alias (CNAME) record
D. three text (TXT) record

Answer: D



Question: 2

You need to meet the security requirement for Group1.
What should you do?

A. Configure all users to sign in by using multi-factor authentication.
B. Modify the properties of Group1.
C. Assign Group1 a management role.
D. Modify the Password reset properties of the Azure AD tenant.

Answer: D



Question: 3

To which Azure AD role should you add User4 to meet the security requirement?

A. Password administrator
B. Global administrator
C. Security administrator
D. Privileged role administrator

Answer: B

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Latest Oracle 1z0-1084-20 Questions Answers 2020 | Valid 1z0-1084-20 Dumps

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Which one of the statements describes a service aggregator pattern?

A. It is implemented in each service separately and uses a streaming service
B. It involves implementing a separate service that makes multiple calls to other backend services
C. It uses a queue on both sides of the service communication
D. It involves sending events through a message broker

Answer: B



Question: 2

Which two statements accurately describe an Oracle Functions application?

A. A small block of code invoked in response to an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events service
B. A Docker image containing all the functions that share the same configuration
C. An application based on Oracle Functions, Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events and OCI API Gateway services
D. A common context to store configuration variables that are available to all functions in the application
E. A logical group of functions

Answer: D,E



Question: 3

You have been asked to create a stateful application deployed in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) that requires all of your worker nodes to mount and write data to persistent volumes.
Which two OCI storage services should you use?

A. Use OCI File Services as a persistent volume.
B. Use GlusterFS as a persistent volume.
C. Use OCI Block Volume backed persistent volume.
D. Use open-source storage solutions on top of OCI.
E. Use OCI Object Storage as a persistent volume.

Answer: A, C

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Latest Oracle 1z0-1067 Dumps |Verified Study Material 2020 | Dumpspass4sure.com

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

You are asked to deploy a new application that has been designed to scale horizontally. The business stakeholders have asked that the application be deployed In us-phoenix-1.
Normal usage requires 2 OCPUs. You expect to have few spikes during the week, that will require up to 4 OCPUs, and a major usage uptick at the end of each month that will require 8 OCPUs.
What is the most cost-effective approach to implementing a highly available and scalable solution?

A. Create an instance pool with a VM.Standard2.2 shape instance configuration. Setup the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances, to handle the weekly spikes, and a maximum of 4 Instances.
B. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use a CLI script to clone It when more resources are needed.
C. Create an instance pool with a VM.Standard2.1 shape instance configuration. Setup the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances and a maximum of 8 instances.
D. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use the Resize Instance action to scale up to a larger shape when more resources are needed.

Answer: A



Question: 2

As the operations administrator for your company's Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI), you have been entrusted with the task of ensuring that data being accessed by the application is encrypted.
Your application portfolio Includes both Virtual Machine (VM) and Bare Metal (BM) database systems.
Which method should you use to achieve the encryption of data-in-transit?

A. Configure backup encryption for RMAN backup sets before transferring data
B. Native Oracle Net Services encryption and integrity capabilities
C. Key Store/Wallet service for on the fly encryption of data in transit
D. Data is encrypted at rest using TDE and no additional encryption is needed

Answer: B



Question: 3

The boot volume on your Oracle Linux instance has run out of space. Your application has crashed due to a lack of swap space, forcing you to Increase the size of the boot volume.
Which step should NOT be Included In the process used to solve the Issue?

A. Resize the boot volume by specifying a larger value than the boot volume's current size.
B. Create a RAID 0 configuration to extend the boot volume file system onto another block volume.
C. Attach the resized boot volume to a second instance as a data volume; Extend the partition and grow the file system on the resized boot volume.
D. Reattach the boot volume and restart the instance.
E. Stop the instance and detach the boot volume.

Answer: B

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Updated SalesForce CPQ-211 Dumps | Tips to Pass CPQ-211 Exam

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Universal Containers sell their subscription products only in whole months. The Users at Universal Containers are sometimes entering values into Start Date and End Date and leaving Subscription Term blank. They are finding that subscription pricing is not working as they would expect because the dates they are choosing do not equate to exact months. This leads to pricing that maybe a few cents or even a few dollars off. The Admin would like to find a solution that does not require forcing the users to use Subscription Term. What should be done so that the pricing is rounded to the expected value?

A. In the package settings, set Subscription Prorate Precision to Monthly.
B. On the Quote object, set the Subscription Prorate Precision field to Monthly.
C. Create a Price Rule which rounds the Prorate Multiplier to the nearest whole value.
D. Create a Price Rule that takes the user-entered data and calculates a rounded Term.

Answer: A



Question: 2

Universal Containers (UC) wants to use an Option Constraint in a bundle that requires a user to sell Product Option X before they can sell Product Option Y. Sales have indicated that this would be too restrictive, and they want to be able to select Product Option Y as long as Product Option X is an existing asset on the account. UC has approved this change. What should the Admin do to address this change?

A. List accounts with assets in the “Option Constraint Group” field.
B. Look up the account with the assets on the “Account” field.
C. Mark the “Check Prior Purchases” checkbox as TRUE.
D. Use a Product Rule instead of an Option Constraint.

Answer: C



Question: 3

Universal Containers (UC) wants to set up four separate Template Sections. UC also wants each of these sections to render on its own page, no matter if the text field fills an entire page or not. Which two will determine how the page breaks?

A. Under the Page Break picklist, select the After option on each of the first three Template Sections.
B. Under the Keep with the Previous picklist, select the Always option on each of the Template Sections.
C. Under the Keep Separate picklist, select the Always option on each of the Template Sections.
D. Under the Page Break picklist, select the Before option on each of the last three Template Sections.

Answer: A, D

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Latest CompTIA CS0-001 Questions Answers 2020 | Valid CS0-001 Dumps

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Which of the following BEST describes the offensive participants in a tabletop exercise?

A. Red team
B. Blue team
C. System administrators
D. Security analysts
E. Operations team

Answer: A



Question: 2

After analyzing and correlating activity from multiple sensors, the security analyst has determined a group from a high-risk country is responsible for a sophisticated breach of the company network and continuous administration of targeted attacks for the past three months. Until now, the attacks went unnoticed. This is an example of:

A. privilege escalation.
B. advanced persistent threat.
C. malicious insider threat.
D. spear phishing.

Answer: B



Question: 3

A system administrator who was using an account with elevated privileges deleted a large number of log files generated by a virtual hypervisor in order to free up disk space. These log files are needed by the security team to analyze the health of the virtual machines. Which of the following compensating controls would help prevent this from reoccurring? (Select two.)

A. Succession planning
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory vacation
D. Personnel training
E. Job rotation

Answer: B, D

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Latest Eccouncil 312-50v10 Dumps |Verified Study Material 2020 | Dumpspass4sure.com

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Email is transmitted across the Internet using the Simple Mail Transport Protocol. SMTP does not encrypt email, leaving the information in the message vulnerable to being read by an unauthorized person. SMTP can upgrade a connection between two mail servers to use TLS. Email transmitted by SMTP over TLS is encrypted. What is the name of the command used by SMTP to transmit email over TLS?

A. OPPORTUNISTICTLS STARTTLS
B. FORCETLS
C. UPGRADETLS

Answer: B



Question: 2

Developers at your company are creating a web application which will be available for use by anyone onthe Internet, The developers have taken the approach of implementing a Three-Tier Architecture for the web application. The developers are now asking you which network should the Presentation Tier (frontend webserver) be placed in?

A. isolated VLAN network
B. Mesh network
C. DMZ network
D. Internal network

Answer: A



Question: 3

Your business has decided to add credit card numbers to the data it backs up to tape. Which of the following represents the best practice your business should observe?

A. Hire a security consultant to provide direction.
B. Do not back up cither the credit card numbers or then hashes.
C. Back up the hashes of the credit card numbers not the actual credit card numbers.
D. Encrypt backup tapes that are sent off-site.

Answer: A

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Microsoft 70-742 Dumps | PDF Key To Success | {2020}

Sample Questions:-

Question: 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1.
You recently restored a backup of the Active Directory database from Server1 to an alternate location.
The restore operation does not interrupt the Active Directory services on Server1.
You need to make the Active Directory data in the backup accessible by using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP).
Which tool should you use?

A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console

Answer: E



Question: 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You need to limit the number of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) objects that a user can create in the domain.
Which tool should you use?

A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console

Answer: A



Question: 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly.
Which tool should you use?

A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console

Answer: C

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