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SAP E_S4HCON2019 Free Certification Exam Material | Dumpspass4sure

Question: 1

You want to use the Custom Code Migration Worklist via Remote Code analysis using the ABAP Test
Cockpit (ATC). How can you get the latest content of the simplification database?
Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Configure it within transaction ATC
B. Apply the corresponding SAP note via SAP Note Assistant
C. Download it from SAP Support Portal
D. Generate it by analyzing the specific custom code via RFC

Answer: C



Question: 2

What is the benefit of using the file UPGANA.XML from a previous SUM run?
Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. To make the progress information within SUM UI more accurate
B. To auto-fill specific fields on selected screens on the SUM UI
C. To skip selected phases during the SUM run
D. To repeat specific phases during the SUM run

Answer: A



Question: 3

Which steps should be performed during the adjustment of dictionary objects (SPDD) in the
development system, before SUM continues?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Release the transport request containing the modification adjustment
B. Assign the transport request as a modification adjustment transport
C. Create "modified' versions of the objects that you need to adjust
D. Manually activate the adjusted dictionary objects

Answer: BC



Question: 4

What do you need to know about the SAP ERP Upgrade and Update Guide?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. It contains a section "free space requirements"
B. It is target release specific
C. It is a database-specific document
D. It contains a troubleshooting section

Answer: AB



Question: 5

Which Guides contain information about SUM phases starting with "EU_CLONE_"?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. The SAP S/HANA Conversion Guide
B. The Application Guide
C. The major SUM Guide
D. The DMO Guide

Answer: AD

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Question: 1

A company plans to migrate to Microsoft 365.

You need to advise the company about how Microsoft provides protection in a multitenancy

environment. What are three ways that Microsoft provides protection? Each correct answer presents

part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Customer content at rest is encrypted on the server by using BitLocker.

B. Microsoft Azure AD provides authorization and role based access control at the tenant layer.

C. Customer content at rest is encrypted on the server by using transport layer security (TLS).

D. Microsoft Azure AD provides authorization and role based access control at the transport layer.

E. Mailbox databases in Microsoft Exchange Online contain only mailboxes from a single tenant.

F. Mailbox databases in Microsoft Exchange Online contain mailboxes from multiple tenants.

Answer: ABC

Explanation:

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/office-365-tenant-isolationoverview

Question: 2

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.

Your company plans to open a new office in the United Kingdom.

You need to provide penetration test and security assessment reports (or the new office.

Where can you locate the required reports?

A. Data Governance page of the Security and Compliance portal.

B. Compliance Manager page of the Services Trust portal

C. Data Loss Prevention page of the Security and Compliance portal

D. Regional Compliance page of the Services Trust portal

Answer: D 

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Question: 1

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites.
Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high
availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users.
Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each
zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA)
machines in Zone A in each Site.
The following access requirements have been identified:
• Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites.
• Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location.
• Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed
from different Sites.
• Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler.
• No duplication of applications published from different Sites.
• Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A.
The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on
___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)


A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances


Answer: B



Question: 2

Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to
ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute.
What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?


A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing


Answer: E 



Question: 3

Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company
has identified the following user groups and requirements.
• Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to
work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS
applications.
• Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the
environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer
database.
• Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a
graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?


A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI


Answer: B 


Question: 4

A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants
to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative
team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)

A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications
D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes

Answer: A,C,D,F

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Latest SPLK-1002 Dumps - Check the Newest SPLK-1002 Question Answers by Dumpspass4sure

Question: 1

Which of the following Statements about macros is true? (select all that apply)
A. Arguments are defined at execution time.
B. Arguments are defined when the macro is created.
C. Argument values are used to resolve the search string at execution time.
D. Argument values are used to resolve the search string when the macro is created.

Answer: A, C



Question: 2

What is required for a macro to accept three arguments?

A. The macro's name ends with (3).
B. The macro's name starts with (3).
C. The macro's argument count setting is 3 or more.
D. Nothing, all macros can accept any number of arguments.

Answer: A



Question: 3

Which of the following statements describes POST workflow actions?

A. POST workflow actions are always encrypted.
B. POST workflow actions cannot use field values in their URI.
C. POST workflow actions cannot be created on custom sourcetypes.
D. POST workflow actions can open a web page in either the same window or a new .

Answer: D 



Question: 5

Which of the following workflow actions can be executed from search results? (select all that apply)

A. GET
B. POST
C. LOOKUP
D. Search

Answer: A, B, D



Question: 6

Which of the following is the correct way to use the data model command to search field in the data
model within the web dataset?

A. | datamodel web search | filed web *
B. | Search datamodel web web | filed web*
C. | datamodel web web field | search web*
D. Datamodel=web | search web | filed web*

Answer: A

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Get SPLK-2002 Dumps for Direct Success through Dumpspass4sure - Don't Think About Failure

Question: 1

Which of the following will cause the greatest reduction in disk size requirements for a cluster of N
indexers running Splunk Enterprise Security?

A. Setting the cluster search factor to N-1.
B. Increasing the number of buckets per index.
C. Decreasing the data model acceleration range.
D. Setting the cluster replication factor to N-1.

Answer: D



Question: 2

Stakeholders have identified high availability for searchable data as their top priority. Which of the
following best addresses this requirement?

A. Increasing the search factor in the cluster.
B. Increasing the replication factor in the cluster.
C. Increasing the number of search heads in the cluster.
D. Increasing the number of CPUs on the indexers in the cluster.

Answer: B



Question: 3

Search dashboards in the Monitoring Console indicate that the distributed deployment is
approaching its capacity. Which of the following options will provide the most search performance
improvement?

A. Replace the indexer storage to solid state drives (SSD).
B. Add more search heads and redistribute users based on the search type.
C. Look for slow searches and reschedule them to run during an off-peak time.
D. Add more search peers and make sure forwarders distribute data evenly across all indexers.

Answer: C



Question: 4

A Splunk architect has inherited the Splunk deployment at Buttercup Games and end users are
complaining that the events are inconsistently formatted for a web sourcetype. Further investigation
reveals that not all web logs flow through the same infrastructure: some of the data goes through
heavy forwarders and some of the forwarders are managed by another department.
Which of the following items might be the cause for this issue?

A. The search head may have different configurations than the indexers.
B. The data inputs are not properly configured across all the forwarders.
C. The indexers may have different configurations than the heavy forwarders.
D. The forwarders managed by the other department are an older version than the rest.

Answer: D



Question: 5

A customer has installed a 500GB Enterprise license. They also purchased and installed a 300GB, no
enforcement license on the same license master. How much data can the customer ingest before
search is locked out?

A. 300GB. After this limit, search is locked out.
B. 500GB. After this limit, search is locked out.
C. 800GB. After this limit, search is locked out.
D. Search is not locked out. Violations are still recorded.

Answer: D 

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Splunk SPLK-1001 Dumps PDF and Get SPLK-1001 Practice Questions

Question: 1

What is the correct syntax to count the number of events containing a vendor_action field?

A. count stats vendor_action
B. count stats (vendor_action)
C. stats count (vendor_action)
D. stats vendor_action (count)

Answer: C



Question: 2

By default, which of the following fields would be listed in the fields sidebar under interesting Fields?

A. host
B. index
C. source
D. sourcetype

Answer: A



Question: 3

When looking at a dashboard panel that is based on a report, which of the following is true?

A. You can modify the search string in the panel, and you can change and configure the visualization.
B. You can modify the search string in the panel, but you cannot change and configure the
visualization.
C. You cannot modify the search string in the panel, but you can change and configure the
visualization.
D. You cannot modify the search string in the panel, and you cannot change and configure the
visualization.

Answer: C



Question: 4

Which of the following is a best practice when writing a search string?

A. Include all formatting commands before any search terms
B. Include at least one function as this is a search requirement
C. Include the search terms at the beginning of the search string
D. Avoid using formatting clauses as they add too much overhead

Answer: A 


Question: 5

What type of search can be saved as a report?

A. Any search can be saved as a report
B. Only searches that generate visualizations
C. Only searches containing a transforming command
D. Only searches that generate statistics or visualizations

Answer: D 

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Cisco 300-180 Dumps PDF and Get 300-180 Practice Questions

Question: 1

Which two conditions can prevent vFC from coming up? (Choose two.)

A. PFC is enabled.
B. DCBX is disabled.
C. LDP is disabled.
D. vPC is enabled.
E. VSAN trunking is enabled

Answer: B, C



Question: 2

Which communication is exchanged between neighbors during OTV adjacency formation across the
layer 3 multicast network?

A. IGMP packets
B. OTV open messages
C. L1 IS-IS Hello packets
D. OTV adjacency packets

Answer: A 



Question: 3

Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?

A. it restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. it is implemented only if error occur.
D. it is implemented and any errors are skipped.

Answer: C 



Question: 4

A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and
enables SSL for LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure?

A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint.
B. The CA certificate is missing from the trustpoints.
C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded.
D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded.

Answer: D 



Question: 5

An administrator disassociates the service profile from a server. What happens to the identity and
connectivity information for the physical server?

A. it takes parameters of other servers in the service profile.
B. it is reset to factory details.
C. it uses master service profile parameters.
D. it is maintain and can be reused.

Answer: D 

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Get PROFESSIONAL-CLOUD-ARCHITECT Dumps for Direct Success through Dumpspass4sure - Don't Think About Failure

Question: 1

Your solution is producing performance bugs in production that you did not see in staging and test
environments. You want to adjust your test and deployment procedures to avoid this problem in the
future. What should you do?

A. Deploy fewer changes to production.
B. Deploy smaller changes to production.
C. Increase the load on your test and staging environments.
D. Deploy changes to a small subset of users before rolling out to production.

Answer: D



Question: 2

Your company has decided to make a major revision of their API in order to create better experiences
for their developers. They need to keep the old version of the API available and deployable, while
allowing new customers and testers to try out the new API. They want to keep the same SSL and DNS
records in place to serve both APIs. What should they do?

A. Configure a new load balancer for the new version of the API.
B. Reconfigure old clients to use a new endpoint for the new API.
C. Have the old API forward traffic to the new API based on the path.
D. Use separate backend pools for each API path behind the load balancer.

Answer: D

https://cloud.google.com/endpoints/docs/openapi/lifecycle-management



Question: 3

A small number of API requests to your microservices-based application take a very long time. You know that each request to the API can traverse many services. You want to know which service takes the longest in those cases. What should you do?

A. Set timeouts on your application so that you can fail requests faster.
B. Send custom metrics for each of your requests to Stackdriver Monitoring.
C. Use Stackdriver Monitoring to look for insights that show when your API latencies are high.
D. Instrument your application with Stackdnver Trace in order to break down the request latencies at
each microservice.

Answer: D

https://cloud.google.com/trace/docs/overview



Question: 4

During a high traffic portion of the day, one of your relational databases crashes, but the replica is never
promoted to a master. You want to avoid this in the future. What should you do?

A. Use a different database.
B. Choose larger instances for your database.
C. Create snapshots of your database more regularly.
D. Implement routinely scheduled failovers of your databases.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Take regular snapshots of your database system.
If your database system lives on a Compute Engine persistent disk, you can take snapshots of your
system each time you upgrade. If your database system goes down or you need to roll back to a
previous version, you can simply create a new persistent disk from your desired snapshot and make that
disk the boot disk for a new Compute Engine instance. Note that, to avoid data corruption, this
approach requires you to freeze the database system's disk while taking a snapshot.

Reference: https://cloud.google.com/solutions/disaster-recovery-cookbook



Question: 5

Your organization requires that metrics from all applications be retained for 5 years for future analysis in
possible legal proceedings. Which approach should you use?

A. Grant the security team access to the logs in each Project.
B. Configure Stackdriver Monitoring for all Projects, and export to BigQuery.
C. Configure Stackdriver Monitoring for all Projects with the default retention policies.
D. Configure Stackdriver Monitoring for all Projects, and export to Google Cloud Storage.

Answer: B

https://cloud.google.com/monitoring/api/v3/metrics

Explanation:

Stackdriver Logging provides you with the ability to filter, search, and view logs from your cloud and
open source application services. Allows you to define metrics based on log contents that are
incorporated into dashboards and alerts. Enables you to export logs to BigQuery, Google Cloud Storage,and Pub/Sub.

References: https://cloud.google.com/stackdriver/

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Get 400-101 Dumps for Direct Success through Dumpspass4sure - Don't Think About Failure

Question: 1

Which two statements about 802.10 tunneling are true? (Choose two.)

A. It requires a system MTU of at least 1504 bytes.
B. The default configuration sends Cisco Discovery Protocol, STP: and VTP information.
C. Traffic that traverses the tunnel is encrypted.
D. It is supported on private VLAN ports.
E. MAC-based QoS and UDLD are supported on tunnel ports.
F. Its maximum allowable system MTU is 1546 bytes.

Answer: A, E 



Question: 2

Which protocol allows connections made by an NBMA network to dynamically learn connected
address?

A.PPP
B. NHRP
C. HDLC
D. POP

Answer: B



Question: 3

Which way to influence path selection with EIGRP is preferred?

A. changing the bandwidth, because it does not have any impact on other router features.
B. changing the bandwidth, because that is what Cisco recommends.
C. changing the bandwidth, because ii must be done only on one interface along the path.
D. changing the delay, even if it must be done on multiple interfaces

Answer: D 



Question: 4

In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge. the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?

A. Listening
B. Forwarding
C. Learning
D. Disabled
E. Blocking

Answer: A 

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Get Most Successful DP-100 Dumps (PDF) Microsoft Test Questions 2020

Question: 1

You need to select an environment that will meet the business and data requirements.
Which environment should you use?

A. Azure HDInsight with Spark MLlib
B. Azure Cognitive Services
C. Azure Machine Learning Studio
D. Microsoft Machine Learning Server

Answer: D 



Question: 2

You need to implement a scaling strategy for the local penalty detection data.
Which normalization type should you use?

A. Streaming
B. Weight
C. Batch
D. Cosine

Answer: C

Explanation:

Post batch normalization statistics (PBN) is the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit (CNTK) version of how to
evaluate the population mean and variance of Batch Normalization which could be used in inference
Original Paper.
In CNTK, custom networks are defined using the BrainScriptNetworkBuilder and described in the
CNTK network description language "BrainScript."
Scenario:
Local penalty detection models must be written by using BrainScript.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cognitive-toolkit/post-batch-normalization-statistics



Question: 3

You need to implement a feature engineering strategy for the crowd sentiment local models.
What should you do?

A. Apply an analysis of variance (ANOVA).
B. Apply a Pearson correlation coefficient.
C. Apply a Spearman correlation coefficient.
D. Apply a linear discriminant analysis.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The linear discriminant analysis method works only on continuous variables, not categorical or
ordinal variables.
Linear discriminant analysis is similar to analysis of variance (ANOVA) in that it works by comparing
the means of the variables.
Scenario:
Data scientists must build notebooks in a local environment using automatic feature engineering and
model building in machine learning pipelines.
Experiments for local crowd sentiment models must combine local penalty detection data.
All shared features for local models are continuous variables.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Pearson correlation coefficient, sometimes called Pearson’s R test, is a statistical value that
measures the linear relationship between two variables. By examining the coefficient values, you can
infer something about the strength of the relationship between the two variables, and whether they
are positively correlated or negatively correlated.
C: Spearman’s correlation coefficient is designed for use with non-parametric and non-normally
distributed data. Spearman's coefficient is a nonparametric measure of statistical dependence
between two variables, and is sometimes denoted by the Greek letter rho. The Spearman’s
coefficient expresses the degree to which two variables are monotonically related. It is also called
Spearman rank correlation, because it can be used with ordinal variables.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/fisherlineardiscriminantanalysis
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/computelinearcorrelation

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Cisco 300-080 Dumps PDF and Get 300-080 Practice Questions

Question: 1

You are troubleshooting an ILS connectivity issue. All clusters are set to “Use TLS Certificates”. Which
certificates must be exchanged between Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters?

A. Tomcat certificates between all nodes in all clusters.
B. TLS certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.
C. Call Manager certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.
D. Tomcat certificates between publisher nodes in all clusters.

Answer: D

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmfeat/
CUCM_BK_F3AC1C0F_00_cucm-features



Question: 2

Which two types of call causes the user to hear the reorder tone? (Choose two.)

A. call to a number that is working but is unlisted
B. restricted call
C. call using a non-Cisco phone
D. call to a number that has been blocked
E. unrestricted call

Answer: AB 



Question: 3

Replication is failing between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Publisher and Subscriber
servers.
In which two ways can you verify the database replication status? (Choose two.)

A. TRACERT
B. CLI
C. APIC-EM
D. PING
E. RTMT

Answer: BE

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unifiedcommunications/unifiedcommunicationsmanagercallmanager/
200396-Steps-to-Troubleshoot-Database-Replicati.html#anc2



Question: 4

An engineer is investigating voice quality degradation on calls passing through a particular SIP
gateway. To gather the necessary information, sample traffic captures are taken. Which information
in the capture reveals the problem?

A. destination port
B. version
C. ToS bits
D. MTU

Answer: B

Reference:

https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/how-to-troubleshootvoicequalityissuesin-a-ucm-environment/ta-p/3121613



Question: 5

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to look at detailed
specific events, such as dial plan digit analysis, as they are happening?

A. RTMT real-time trace
B. Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
C. syslog output
D. RTMT performance log viewer

Answer: B

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/dna/8_6_1/dnaguide/dnai.html

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Most Updated 300-101 Exam Simulator Questions Dumps - Dumpspass4sure

Question: 1

A network engineer is enabling RIPng on a new customer link. Under which configuration mode is RIPng
enabled?
A. Global
B. Router
C. Interface
D. IPv6

Answer: A


Question: 2

Which three algorithms can you configure with the ip cef load-sharing algorithm command?(choose
three)

A. per-packed
B. Tunnel
C. per-destination
D. Universal
E. Per-source
F. Include-port

Answer: BDF


Question: 3

How big is the smallest packet that will always be fragmented on a standard Ethernet network with
default configuration?

A. 1500 bytes
B. 1800 bytes
C. 2048 bytes
D. 2100bytes

Answer: A


Question: 4

Where must a network engineer configure the ip helper-address command on a router?

A. On the interface that will receive the broadcast
B. On the interface that is closest to the destination DHCP server
C. On the global configuration mode
D. On the DHCP configuration

Answer: A


Question: 5

Which STP feature can reduce TCNs on ports that are connected to end devices?

A. BPDU guard
B. Root guard
C. PortFast
D. BackboneFast

Answer: C 

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Latest CISM Dumps - Check the Newest CISM Question Answers by Dumpspass4sure

Question: 1


Which of the following is an example of a corrective control?

A. Diverting incoming traffic upon responding to the denial of service (DoS) attack
B. Filtering network traffic before entering an internal network from outside
C. Examining inbound network traffic for viruses
D. Logging inbound network traffic

Answer: A

Explanation:

Diverting incoming traffic corrects the situation and. therefore, is a corrective control. Choice B is a
preventive control. Choices C and D are detective controls.


Question: 2


To determine how a security breach occurred on the corporate network, a security manager looks at
the logs of various devices. Which of the following BEST facilitates the correlation and review of
these logs?

A. Database server
B. Domain name server (DNS)
C. Time server
D. Proxy server

Answer: C

Explanation:

To accurately reconstruct the course of events, a time reference is needed and that is provided by
the time server. The other choices would not assist in the correlation and review1 of these logs.


Question: 3

An organization has been experiencing a number of network-based security attacks that all appear
to originate internally. The BEST course of action is to:

A. require the use of strong passwords.
B. assign static IP addresses.
C. implement centralized logging software.
D. install an intrusion detection system (IDS).

Answer: D

Explanation:

Installing an intrusion detection system (IDS) will allow the information security manager to better
pinpoint the source of the attack so that countermeasures may then be taken. An IDS is not limited
to detection of attacks originating externally. Proper placement of agents on the internal network
can be effectively used to detect an internally based attack. Requiring the use of strong passwords
will not be sufficiently effective against a network-based attack. Assigning IP addresses would not be
effective since these can be spoofed. Implementing centralized logging software will not necessarily
provide information on the source of the attack.


Question: 4

A serious vulnerability is reported in the firewall software used by an organization. Which of the
following should be the immediate action of the information security manager?

A. Ensure that all OS patches are up-to-date
B. Block inbound traffic until a suitable solution is found
C. Obtain guidance from the firewall manufacturer
D. Commission a penetration test

Answer: C

Explanation:

The best source of information is the firewall manufacturer since the manufacturer may have a
patch to fix the vulnerability or a workaround solution. Ensuring dial all OS patches are up-to-date is
a best practice, in general, but will not necessarily address the reported vulnerability. Blocking
inbound traffic may not be practical or effective from a business perspective. Commissioning a
penetration test will take too much time and will not necessarily provide a solution for corrective
actions.


Question: 5


An organization keeps backup tapes of its servers at a warm site. To ensure that the tapes are
properly maintained and usable during a system crash, the MOST appropriate measure the
organization should perform is to:

A. use the test equipment in the warm site facility to read the tapes.
B. retrieve the tapes from the warm site and test them.
C. have duplicate equipment available at the warm site.
D. inspect the facility and inventory the tapes on a quarterly basis.

Answer: B

Explanation:

A warm site is not fully equipped with the company's main systems; therefore, the tapes should be
tested using the company's production systems. Inspecting the facility and checking the tape
inventory does not guarantee that the tapes are usable.

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